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How is domain of the function f(x)=cos x restricted so that its inverse function exists?

Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements.

How is domain of the function fxcos x restricted so that its inverse function exists Drag a value or interval into each box to correctly complete the statements class=
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Respuesta :

amna04352

Answer:

[0,pi]

Step-by-step explanation:

Because cos is one-one in 0 to pi, inclusive

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